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Andrew Swann's avatar

Great piece, Tim. Very much enjoyed reading this. Here is a broad question on the categories, and I guess also the originality of Kant's achievement, that I would love to hear your thoughts on at some point:

As I understand Kant's development of the twelve categories, he begins by adopting Aristotle's fourfold method of classifying judgments. Later, he rejects Aristotle's empirical derivation of the categories as being fundamentally a posteriori, rather than a priori. Aristotle's attention to everyday lifeforms, and the language we use to describe them, is of course not 'transcendental' in the way Kant thinks necessary to secure categorical judgments against the Humean skeptic.

However, Kant does say several times in his discussion of the categories that his primary purpose is much the same as Aristotle's, as concerns the desire to derive categories in the first place. The issue is that Aristotle's attempt is "rhapsodic" in that it does not derive according to a universal, governing principle. His empirical method is too everyday, haphazard, episodic, etc.

My question is this: do you think it would it have been possible for Kant to "derive" his twelve categories of the understanding without this dialectical engagement with Aristotle's empirical ontological method? I guess what I am trying to get at is whether or not Kant's achievement, as you see it, must contain Aristotle's original achievement within it in some sense, as Hegel will later claim. If it does, how does that temper the originality of Kant’s philosophical achievement? I’m curious as to whether or not you think Kant's "...objects must conform to our knowledge of them" is a decisive break with Aristotle's method of derivation that stands on its own or, as Hegel will insist, only half the story. Thanks again for this!!

Jason Barton's avatar

Excellent. I am reflecting upon two considerations in light of this lucid and thought-provoking investigation.

First, if "determining the content of a concept and determining the conditions of its use cannot be separated," is there ever an absolute or complete distinction between concept and judgment? In thinking a concept, I am necessarily thinking about its application, and its application necessarily occurs through judgments. Thus, in thinking about a concept, I am already thinking about the faculty of the power of judgment. (I am approaching this implicit containment of judgment within concept from a Hegelian standpoint in which determinate concepts yield judgments, and judgments yield syllogisms.)

Second, this framing of self-consciousness as a mode of awareness or recognition rather than a grasping of the self as an object seems inextricably linked to Kant's phenomenal/noumenal distinction. I know that you bracket Kant's infamous "thing-in-itself" from this inquiry; however, is this possible? Consider this passage about the transcendental unity of apperception from the B-edition of Kant's First Critique:

"Now since for the cognition of ourselves, in addition to the action of thinking that brings the manifold of every possible intuition to the unity of apperception ... I ... have no cognition of myself as I am, but only as I appear to myself. The consciousness of oneself is therefore far from being a cognition of oneself" (B157/B158).

Based on this excerpt, it appears that "self-consciousness" in the Kantian register of awareness/recognition relies upon the distinction between phenomenal appearance (self as it appears to itself) and noumenal reality (self as it is in itself).

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